1. When the PTN equipment EX2 board is connected to the STM-64 port, how should the working mode of the interface be set?

2. During the network acceptance test, it was found that OSN 3500 could work normally when connected to an external clock source, and entered the hold state when disconnected from the external clock source. However, the hold state could not last for 24 hours. Which of the following are the possible reasons?

3. Which of the following statements about the reporting of OTUk_BDI alarm is wrong?

4. In the 40-wavelength system of wavelength division equipment, due to the aging of the customer's optical cable, the optical cable between sites 2# and 3# needs to be replaced, and a 4# optical amplifier site needs to be added between 2# and 3#. Which of the following statements are correct?

5. Which of the following descriptions of ODUk SNCP protection type is wrong?

6. Which of the following statements about the position of the dispersion module in the signal flow is wrong?

7. In general, which PHB is used for signaling?

8. A network is configured with an optical line protection group. The initial difference between the primary and standby input optical signals is 2db, and the primary and standby input optical difference switching threshold is 5db. Which of the following situations will trigger switching?

9. Network elements A, B, and C are OSN 3500s that form a chain network. The two AIC stations are connected to routers. The IPR router is connected to the OptiX SDH equipment through the STM-1 POS port. The PAS port also uses 1 and C2 bytes as payload transfer bytes (for carrying services). VC4 services are created from network element A to network element C, and VC4 is passed through network element B.
In this case, is there any alarm reported inside the SDH network?

10. If both the bidirectional OA and OSC report a loss of light alarm in a WDM network, which is the most likely cause?

11. TOA board is a high-speed service tributary processing board. The following is the description of TOA (STND) board. Which one is wrong?

12. When considering the dispersion distance in a DWDM 10G system, which distance should be considered?

13. Which of the following is not a single-layer board?

14. When congestion occurs, there are many different queuing strategies. If you need to serve the first-arriving packets first, you can use the () queuing strategy; if you want to ensure that the most urgent and critical services are served first, you can use the () queuing strategy; if you need to balance the delay and delay jitter of each flow, you can use the () queuing strategy; if you want to provide dedicated bandwidth for specific services , you can use the () queuing strategy.

15. In SDH networks, the S1 byte is used to transmit synchronization status information. Which of the following S1 byte values represents the G811 recommended clock?

16. Which of the following features can adjust bandwidth on demand when Ethernet networking is used, dynamically increase and decrease members in VCTRUNK without affecting services? When a virtual cascade group member fails, the bandwidth can be quickly adjusted to ensure normal data transmission; when the failed member recovers, the original bandwidth of the virtual cascade group is automatically restored.

17. The new TN55ND2 board of the OSN8800 equipment was found to be unable to go online. Which of the following reasons are impossible?

18. Which of the following protections does N3EGS2 support?

19. When using a dual slot line group MSP ring, in which of the following cases is the multiplex section overhead K bytes in the pass-through state?

20. While expanding the existing network wave distribution system, which of the following performances do not need to be evaluated?

21. Which of the following descriptions of the 1+1 protection features on the client side is wrong?

22. After replacing the single master control, the new master control software is inconsistent with the previous faulty master control software. Which alarm may be triggered by the network element damage?

23. Which of the following does not belong to simple flow classification?

24. Which of the following descriptions of electrical layer protection ODUk SNCP and branch SNCP is different?

25. In the Linux system, configure an IP address 129.9.1.100 for the network card Eth0. Which of the following command is used?

26. What network problems can’t QoS solve?

27. Which of the following is an error in the system OSNR commissioning?

28. NSF (Non-Stop Forwarding) means that when a certain type of device failure occurs, data forwarding is still performed normally to protect the key services on the network. In which of the following scenarios will the NSF function fail to perform data forwarding normally?

29. When planning a 1+1 HSB, corresponding planning principles should be followed. Which of the following are not planning principles for HSB?

30. The insertion loss of the 40 split-wave channels of D40 is 6dB. Without considering the influence of noise, when the signal is full, the optical power of the IN port of D40 is X dBm. If the optical power of the IN port is decreases by 1dB, the measured value of one of the output ports is 6dBm. (Assuming that the optical power of each channel is balanced, lg40=16)

31. The IP address you use is 165.247.52.119, and the subnet mask is 255.255.240.0. Which subnet is your host on?

32. In order to achieve the specified synchronization quality requirements, corresponding requirements must be made for the synchronous transmission network, and certain networking rules must be followed during network planning. Which of the following is wrong?

33. OptiX OSN 1800 is a compact multi-service optical transport platform. Which of the following descriptions is wrong?